I had always thought that: “ Simple present tense” is used after [if, as soon as, as, when, after, before, once] to express future meaning. But now “Practical English Usage” by Michael Swan, says both are correct. 1080P/2K/4K分辨率,以RTX 5050为基准(25款主流游戏测试成绩取平均值) 数据来源于:TechPowerUp 桌面端显卡天梯图: Does it mean that essentially we could say that modern English has two subjunctive forms: the older one very similar to the past simple (were for to be) and the newer one with would, and the newer form replaced the older one everywhere but in the if-clause, where it is now slowly being replaced by the past tense because of their similarity? I myself have been known to quote a simple sentence from Wiki saying this, rather baldly and categorically (and rightly, I believe): English has neither a simple perfective nor imperfective aspect; Perfective aspect - Wikipedia All of which means that, of course, context alone can tell us whether a past-tense action is complete or incomplete.

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